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I have read that the "Opium wars" in China were a result of European annoyance that China didn't want to buy anything from them. In order to prevent the scenario you describe, Europeans tried to ship them opium, and then when China tried to ban it, they went to war.

One (of many) disproofs of the "international trade makes war less likely" theory.



I'm not sure how that's a disproof?

The claim is: if "international trade" then "war less likely".

The example you've proposed is: "Europe couldn't effectively trade with China, and so waged war on China." The issue from the outset is the lack of international trade?




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