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Either form is cromulent as both are historically accurate.


Do you have support for this claim? It is pretty extraordinary, and extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence.

AFAIK, "Him" has been the accusative (subject) form since at least Old English. https://www.etymonline.com/word/him


GP is probably thinking of "My dad and me"; not sure how far back it goes but I've certainly heard it quite a bit from native speakers. You might hear someone say, "Him and me, we go way back", but that's slightly different; but "Him and I" mixes the subject/object case, which must be wrong (and I've never heard before).

ETA: I generally don't bother "correcting" the grammar "mistakes" that native speakers make (like "My dad and me did X"); but if I think it's pretty clearly a non-native speaker, I'll correct them, because that's what I would want someone to do for me if I were speaking in their language.




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