That is why originalists advocate the use of original public meaning, not original intent. The meaning of a law when passed as understood by a reasonable person of the era, not the intent or understanding of those who passed it.
If you read Scalia's book, he goes into great detail about this but it boils down to a) you can't read minds as a judge and b) different people voted to pass the law for different reasons, so which ones are valid?
If you read Scalia's book, he goes into great detail about this but it boils down to a) you can't read minds as a judge and b) different people voted to pass the law for different reasons, so which ones are valid?