That’s what I secretly wished. If it where infinite then everything is explained.
But the Wikipedia article “said” that it is 0 (because 1^0+2^0+3^0+...=1+1+1, and 0 is even). But the [dead?!] article submitted by ColinWright from Tao’s blog says it’s -1/2. (I prefer not to disagree with Tao, just fixed Wikipedia.)
The problem is more deep. I should read the complete version of Tao’s article.
Yes, but you cannot assume that the values are finite in the "proof" that they are finite. You have to prove that they are finite before you are allowed to manipulate them as finite quantities.